
08-10-2012, 02:00 PM
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Senior Member
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Join Date: Jul 2012
Posts: 305
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Trying to REALLY understand...
So I have this white female that'ts married that I've been fucking around with for about a year.
She works on my job (BIG MISTAKE), and has introduced me to her husband (will make another post about it). The very first night that I met her she told me that she was attracted to "black" men, and how one of her longing aspirations was to have a mixed child. Now, she claims her husband, who is white, knows all of this.
I do know first hand, and off hand, quite a few of other white females in similar positions over the last 20 years or so.
Now, if I marry a black women, and one day she states to me that she's attracted to white men, and wants to have a child by a white man, the next day we would be getting a divorce! Fucking around with someone that's attracted to, and wants to have a child with someone else is a much different animal than being "married" to them.
Now, if the husband isn't aware of his wife's intention as it relates to this situation, then obviously the onus of maliciousness, and deceit would be on the wife; but what kind of man would enter into a marriage knowing his wife wants to have a child by other men of another race?
For the women; why not just marry the type of men that you're attracted to and want to have children by, rather than drag someone through a marriage???
WHERE'S THE LOGIC???
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